When is one categorized as ‘impotent’
Question
According to the Shariah, what is the necessary duration for a man to be able to have relations with his wife in order for him not to fall under the category of being impotent? Meaning, How long does a man have to be able to last in bed with his wife in Shariah?
Answer
The duration of intimacy is not discussed in the books of Fiqh. However, a female has needs just as a man has needs, hence it is obligatory upon a man to be intimate with his wife at times. It is not permissible to stop having relations with her. Notwithstanding the above, if a man was intimate with his wife at least once in his lifetime then he has fulfilled her right irrespective of the duration of intimacy.
References (Arabic / Urdu sources)
قَوْلُهُ وَيَسْقُطُ حَقُّهَا بِمَرَّةٍ قَالَ فِي الْفَتْحِ: وَاعْلَمْ أَنَّ تَرْكَ جِمَاعِهَا مُطْلَقًا لَا يَحِلُّ لَهُ، صَرَّحَ أَصْحَابُنَا بِأَنَّ جِمَاعَهَا أَحْيَانًا وَاجِبٌ دِيَانَةً، لَكِنْ لَا يَدْخُلُ تَحْتَ الْقَضَاءِ وَالْإِلْزَامِ إلَّا الْوَطْأَةُ الْأُولَى وَلَمْ يُقَدِّرُوا فِيهِ مُدَّةً (رد المحتار ج٨ص٨)
- Answered by
- Maulana Ahmed Saeed
- Checked & approved by
- Mufti Mohammed Desai Saheb
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