Talaaq of a non-Muslim court
Question
I live in France. I demanded divorce in court because my husband does not want a divorce, he didn't came to legal summons. After one year and eight months, the judge has pronounced the divorce. I want to know is the divorce valid in Islam? Knowing that I live in France a non-Muslim country and non-Muslim countries judge, and my husband never came in front of me or the court? We did the marriage in Pakistan but with France permission because he comes from Pakistan and me from France but we lived in France. For how long is my time of idatt if divorce is valid?
Answer
Through the non-Muslim court independently issuing the talaaq, the talaaq will not take place.
And Allah Ta'ala (الله تعالى) knows best.
- Answered by
- Mufti Zakaria Makada
- Checked & approved by
- Mufti Ebrahim Salejee (Isipingo Beach)
Fatawa SA is an independent, read-only index of fatawa already published by Mufti Online — Madrasah Ta'leemuddeen. It is not a fatwa service. For your own situation, ask the issuing Darul Ifta directly.