Talaaq issued after khalwat saheehah
Question
If one talaaq happened after khalwat e sahiha but before intercourse, would that constitute talaaq e bain?
I have read somewhere that majority of the Hanafi, Maliki and Shafi scholars have a view that its an irrevocable divorce, however the wife will still have to spend the full iddat and will be entitled to full mehar.
Answer
This is correct. The talaaq issued after khalwat saheehah will be regarded as a baain talaaq (irrevocable talaaq). Iddat will be compulsory upon the wife and she will be entitled to receive the full mahr.
And Allah Ta'ala (الله تعالى) knows best.
- Answered by
- Mufti Zakaria Makada
- Checked & approved by
- Mufti Ebrahim Salejee (Isipingo Beach)
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